03 Dec, 2007, David Haley wrote in the 1st comment:
Votes: 0
(Originally posted to this thread.)

There was an interesting discussion on Slashdot the other day about the licensing of code posted to an internet forum. If you use code there, what kind of license was it released under? You'd assume something close to public domain if the author is the one posting it, or at the minimum some kind of permission to use (but when? etc.) … And besides, just because somebody put it there, you can't assume they had the right to put it there in the first place. Ah, the complications of legality…

This started in this thread. So for what it's worth, I hereby release my code there into the public domain, but I suppose I might not be able to do that because it is in some sense a derived work of Samson's original posted code… so… uh… yeah, anybody can do whatever they want with it except what Samson says? :headache: :ghostface:

Nah, seriously though, what is the common consensus on MudBytes regarding what happens to code that's been posted to the forum? (for simplicity, let's assume it was posted by the copyright holder)
03 Dec, 2007, Guest wrote in the 2nd comment:
Votes: 0
Reposted from my response to the part you moved:

Well in the case of this particular function my feeling would be "credit where credit is due" which is what I've got. The function is a collective work of you, Davion, and myself. It's reasonable to assume that if it's posted, the block of code being worked on should contain the final results in order to be useful to anyone.

It might be a whole other thing if someone was posting to get help for code that might be part of a larger application with trade secrets involved, but I doubt many of us here would run the risk of being busted by our employers to do that :)